We own a property in South Carolina that was a former big box (170KSF) retailer. We redeveloped the building for a large, single-floor office use. A portion of the exterior wall was rebuilt since it occurred where a former auto-repair use had been located. The architectural drawings do not include any waterproofing (sealing of densglass or EIFS to slab or flashing) for the walls built in this area. During a heavy rain, water is entering the building in these areas. When the GC was challenged as to the cause of the issue, they identified it as I have described above and also said those waterproofing methods would be "typical of these systems." We don't have real experience with latent defects (fortunately) but I'm not quite sure how to triage this one. Is it the architect's responsibility for an insufficient design? Or the GC's since they seemed to know it was atypical and perhaps should have questioned it? Or both? Then, depending on this, where does the responsibility for the repair cost fall? If the architect had designed it correctly, we would have paid for the additional (albeit minimal) cost to construct but now the cost to repair will be much more. Before I start the conversation with my partners on the issue, I would like to be armed with information on how to proceed. Your assistance with this will be very appreciated.
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