Contractor is billing owner for invoices and then asking for “draw”. Example: Invoices (not paid receipts) total 30k. Contractor asks for 60k. I thought I would be sending funds based on paid receipts and not providing a float to the contractor. What is standard in the trade?
Without seeing the agreement between the owner and the contractor, it is hard to say if this is permissible, but it sounds unusual. A consultation with an attorney familiar with construction law would be prudent.